1. A client with AIDS has a viral load of 200 copies per ml. The nurse should interpret this finding as:

  • The client is at risk for opportunistic diseases.
  • The client is no longer communicable.
  • The client’s viral load is extremely low so he is relatively free of circulating virus.

2. The physician has prescribed Nexium (esomeprazole) for a client with erosive gastritis. The nurse should administer the medication:

  • 30 minutes before a meal
  • With each meal
  • In a single dose at bedtime
  • 30 minutes after meals

3. The home health nurse is visiting a client with autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura(ATP). The client’s platelet count currently is 80,000. It will be most important to teach the client and family about:

  • Bleeding precautions
  • Prevention of falls
  • Oxygen therapy
  • Conservation of energy

4. What would the nurse expect the admitting assessment to reveal in a client with glomerulonephritis?

  • Hypertension
  • Lassitude
  • Fatigue
  • Vomiting and diarrhea

5. A client with osteoarthritis has a prescription for Celebrex (celecoxib). Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching?

  • Take the medication with milk.
  • Report chest pain.
  • Remain upright after taking for 30 minutes.
  • Allow six weeks for optimal effects.

1. Patient who has had Parkinson’s disease for 7 years has been experiencing aphasia. Which health professional should make a referral to with regards to his aphasia?

  • Occupational therapist
  • Community matron
  • Psychiatrist
  • Speech and language therapist

2. A newly admitted client has sickle cell crisis. He is complaining of pain in his feet and hands. The nurse’s assessment findings include a pulse oximetry of 92. Assuming that all the following interventions are ordered, which should be done first?

  • Adjust the room temperature
  • Give a bolus of IV fluids
  • Start O2
  • Administer meperidine (Demerol) 75 mg IV push

3. The night after an exploratory laparotomy, a patient who has a nasogastric tube attached to low suction reports nausea. A nurse should take which of the following actions first?

  • Administer the prescribed antiemetic to the patient.
  • Determine the patency of the patient's nasogastric tube.
  • Instruct the patient to take deep breaths.
  • Assess the patient for pain

4. What is the preferred position for abdominal Paracenthesis?

  • Supine with head slightly elevated
  • Supine with knees bent
  • Prone
  • Side-lying

5. What position should you prepare the patient in pre-op for abdominal Paracentesis?

  • Supine
  • Supine with head of bed elevated to 40-50cm
  • Prone
  • Side-lying

1. Mrs Bond is complaining of shortness of breath. On assessment, her legs are swollen indicative of tissue oedema. What do you think is the possible cause of this?

  • left side heart failure
  • right side heart failure
  • renal failure
  • liver failure

2. Patient manifests phlebitis in his IV site, what must a nurse do?

  • Re-site the cannula
  • Inform the doctor
  • Apply warm compress
  • Discontinue infusion

3. Mrs Bond has been assessed to have a cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction to a medication. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) was started immediately. According to the Resuscitation Council UK, which of the following statements is true?

  • Intramuscular route administration of adrenaline is always recommended during cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction.
  • Intramuscular route for adrenaline is not recommended during cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction.
  • Adrenaline can be administered intradermally during cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction.
  • None of the Above

4. A patient is being discharged form the hospital after having coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). Which level of the health care system will best serve the needs of this patient at this point?

  • Primary care
  • Secondary care
  • Tertiary care
  • Public health care

5. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider prior to a magnetic resonance imaging MRI?

  • History of cardiovascular disease
  • Allergy to iodine and shellfish
  • Permanent pacemaker in place
  • Allergy to dairy products

1. Tom was admitted because of acute asthma attack. Later on in your shift, he complained of abdominal pain and vomited. He asked for pain relief. Which of the following prescribed analgesia will you give him?

  • Fentanyl buccal patch
  • Ibuprofen enteric coated capsules
  • Paracetamol suppositories
  • Oromorphine

2. Which of the following drugs will require 2 nurses to check during preparation and administration?

  • oral antibiotics
  • glycerine suppositories
  • morphine tablet
  • oxygen

3. Debra has ran out of Cavilon Cream. You have noted that her groins are very red and sore. You can see that David has spare Cavilon tubes after checking the stocks. What will you do?

  • Borrow a tube from David’s stock as Debra’s groins are red and sore
  • Use Canesten for now and apply Cavilon once stock has arrived
  • Request for a repeat prescription from the GP, and have the stock delivered by the chemist
  • Ring the GP and ask him to see Debra’s groins, then prescribe Cavilon.

4. A patient develops shortness breath after administering 3rd dose of penicillin. The patient is unwell. Your response

  • Call for help, ensure anaphylaxis pack is available, assess ABC, dnt leave the patient until medical help comes
  • Assesss ABC, make patient lie flat, reassure and continue observing

5. What is the best position in applying eye medications?

  • Sitting position with head tilt to the right
  • Sitting position with head tilt backwards
  • Prone position with head tilt to the left

1. What are the four stages of wound healing in the order they take place?

  • Proliferative phase, inflammation phase, remodelling phase, maturation phase.
  • Haemostasis, inflammation phase, proliferation phase, maturation phase
  • Inflammatory phase, dynamic stage, neutrophil phase, maturation phase.
  • Haemostasis, proliferation phase, inflammation phase, remodelling phase support

2. What functions should a dressing fulfil for effective wound healing?

  • High humidity, insulation, gaseous exchange, absorbent.
  • Anaerobic, impermeable, conformable, low humidity.
  • Insulation, low humidity, sterile, high adherence.
  • Absorbent, low adherence, anaerobic, high humidity.

3. Black wounds are treated with debridement. Which type of debridement is most selective and least damaging?

  • Debridement with scissors
  • Debridement with wet to dry dressings
  • Mechanical debridement
  • Chemical debridement

4. What do you expect to assess in a grade 3 pressure ulcer?

  • blistered wound on the skin
  • open wound showing tissue
  • open wound exposing muscles
  • open wound exposing bones

5. If an elderly immobile patient had a "grade 3 pressure sore", what would be your management?

  • Film dressing, mobilization, positioning, nutritional support
  • Foam dressing, pressure relieving mattress, nutritional support
  • Dry dressing, pressure relieving mattress, mobilization
  • Hydrocolloid dressing, pressure relieving mattress, nutritional support